[Inquiry] Re: Questions Involving Pure Symbols -- Discussion
Jon Awbrey
jawbrey at att.net
Mon May 16 11:54:27 CDT 2005
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QUIPS. Discussion Note 12
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JR = Joe Ransdell
JW = Jim Willgoose
JR: Two points in connection with your message below:
JR: First, my response -- just prior to this response --
to your previous message which you modify slightly
below should be regarded as applicable to this one
as well. And I say this after having read your
response, in discussion note #11, to my response.
JR: Second, you will not find Stjernfelt's analysis of the passage
from MS 293 in his paper in the Peirce Transactions congenial
with your thesis, and it seems to me that there is something
objectionable in your reference to it as if it were a support
document for your view, with no explanation whatever of why
you would say such a thing.
Joe,
I implied no relationship between Stjernfelt's paper,
which I haven't read, and my reading of Peirce on the
question of pure symbols. Recent discussions have led
me back to the NEM volumes 3 and 4, where I have mainly
been revisiting the passages that I marginally noted on
some previous visits -- the PAP article being one among
these, I simply archived the excerpt for future review.
More immediately, Jim Willgoose made some remarks that began as follows:
JW: I have been following the discussion of pure symbols for awhile
and thought I may have detected some sources of potential confusion.
First, a token is sometimes understood as a symbol (especially early on).
But what JW wrote seemed to be a cumulative response to the discussion of
pure symbols, perhaps including my recent citation of a passage (CP 3.385)
from Peirce's paper "Algebra of Logic: Philosophy of Notation" (1885), in
which he uses the word "token" in a peculiar way. So I just lumped all of
this stuff together to sort out later.
JR: Since Stjernfelt's paper is not available on-line, or at least
I have had no success in finding it there, I will have to put
in some labor in either extracting some material from it for
quotation or else compose a paraphrase of some of it, which
will take some time in either case. It might be worth it,
though, not for the purpose of refuting your conception
of the pure symbol, which I do not believe will be found
acceptable as it stands, but rather because it will help
to make clear why it is important to understand the symbol
as regards what it normally does in semeiosis and how it
does it, which is not illuminated by an understanding of
icon-free connotation and index-free denotation, supposing
there really is some sense after all in such a conception
of the symbol in its "purity".
Apparently Peirce thought that there was some sense in the conception
of a pure symbol, in the sense of symbol not incorporating or involving
icons or indices, since he wrote what he wrote long before I could have
had any influence on him.
Jon Awbrey
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